I am new to this so I hope someone can provide a view on the issue below:
I purchased a leasehold flat back in early 2010 and was made aware that there were service charge arrears. However, the banks solictors gave an assurance that no liability would not transfer to me.
I was subsequeently sent demands for the arrears and eventaully the matter was referred to the LVT. Although I had attempted to pay what was due from the date of assignment but these were rejected.
At the tribunal (following much research) I succesfully argued that I was not liable for arreas prior to the assignment of the lease to me. I found a number of references supporting this.
The tribunal found that I was not liable to pay the arears as the lease was pre 1990 and it was agreed that payment of the outstanding amount for 2010 was payable (as I expected).
Since receiving the determination I have been trying to contact the Freeholder and Managing Agent to arrange payment. They did not responded to any of my correspondance.
Then about two weeks ago their solitor sent me a Section 146 Notice alleging that I had not paid the money agreed.
I of course immediately wrote to them making them aware of my attempts to contact their client (I have proof of posting) and sent a cheque to the solicitor.
He has now sent the cheque back but not provided any explanation.
I am at loss to understand what the position of the Freeholder is and how to respond to the Section 146 Notice.
I spoke to the Leasehold Advisory Service who said that the Notice was invalid and rather than incurr additional costs just write to the Freeholder.
I would appraciate any vieww on the above.